The Jesus of the Jehovah's Witnesses

The Beroeans "received the word with the greatest eagerness of mind, CAREFULLY EXAMINING THE SCRIPTURES daily as to whether these things were so. Therefore many of them became believers..." (Acts 17:11,12). The reasons many became "believers" in Beroea were: (1) They RECEIVED THE WORD; (2) They were OPEN-MINDED to teachings based on the Scriptures; (3) They carefully examined the word FOR THEMSELVES to see if those things taught were so and (4) They SUBMITTED to the findings.

Dear Reader, will YOU also carefully examine the following Scriptures FOR YOURSELF, with an OPEN MIND, SUBMIT to the findings and be like the Beroeans with the following matter?

In Heb. 1:4, we learn that Jesus is "BETTER than the angels." From Heb. 1:4-14, there are eight reasons why this is so. Please carefully examine these verses for yourself.

ONE, Jesus has a "NAME MORE EXCELLENT" than the __________ (Heb. 1:4).

TWO, the Father never said to any angel __________ (Heb. 1:5). This verse refers to the resurrection of Christ, according to Acts 13:30-33. [Similarly, Jesus is called "only-begotten" several times in the Scriptures (Jn. 1:14,18; 3:16,18; 1 Jn. 4:9). This, however, doesn't mean he was created! The same Greek word used to describe Jesus in this way (MONOGENES) is also used in Heb. 11:17 to describe Isaac's relationship to Abraham. Please note that Isaac was NOT Abraham's only child (Gen. 25:1,2) nor was he Abraham's first child (Gen. 16:15)! However, Isaac is the unique, one-of-a-kind son of Abraham, just as the Lord Jesus is the unique, one-of-a-kind Son of God, but NOT created.]

THREE, Jesus being "BETTER than the angels" (Heb. 1:4) receives from them __________ (Heb. 1:6). [Please note the 1970 ed. of the N. W. T. reads "worship" in Heb. 1:6, but this was changed to "obeisance" in later editions.] Do angels receive WORSHIP (Rev. 19:10; 22:8,9)? ____YES ____NO. Would an angel of God WORSHIP another angel, "fellow slave," after rebuking John for the very same? ____YES ____NO. Who did the angel say to worship? _____ (Rev. 19:10; 22:8,9). Does that SAME ANGEL WORSHIP JESUS, according to Heb. 1:6? ____YES ____NO. Who do the angels in heaven WORSHIP? _______________ (Neh. 9:6; Isa. 6:3). [Compare Luke 4:8 to Heb. 1:6 and learn that Jesus receives the same thing from angels (worship) which Jesus told Satan belongs to God! The Greek shows this.] Does Jesus receive EQUAL BLESSING, HONOR, GLORY and MIGHT with the Father (Rev. 5:13)? ____YES ____NO. Does God share His glory (Isa. 42:8)? ____YES ____NO.

FOUR, God calls his angels _________________ (Heb. 1:7). In contrast, God calls Jesus _____ (Heb. 1:8). (Some have tried to translate Heb. 1:8 as, "God is your throne." That would make the Father a chair! It would also imply that Jesus is better than the Father, since the one who sits on a chair is superior to the chair! In context, "God is your throne" doesn't fit. Please check several translations.)

FIVE, after Jesus is called "God" in Heb. 1:8, what does the Father call Jesus in Heb. 1:10? __________.

SIX, "carefully examine" and compare Heb. 1:10,11 with Psa. 102:25-27. Does God quote Psa. 102:25-27 in reference to Jesus? ____YES ____NO. Psa. 102:25-27 is written about YHWH. Therefore, God calls Jesus _____ by referring these verses to him.

SEVEN, Psa. 102:26 (Heb. 1:11) shows that creation changes. In contrast, does Jesus change (Heb. 1:11,12)? ____YES ____NO. Therefore, could Jesus be part of creation? ____YES ____NO. Does Heb. 13:8 also shows Jesus is unchanging and, therefore, NOT part of creation, according to Heb. 1:11? ____YES ____NO.

EIGHT, Heb. 1:13,14 shows Jesus is superior to the angels once more because __________.

In summary of Heb. 1:4-14, we learned that Jesus is "better than the angels," receives "worship," is called "God," called YHWH and is NOT part of creation, since he remains the same. Can YOU see why it is NOT possible for Jesus to be an angel, namely, Michael the archangel? YES____ NO____.

What about Col. 1:15; Rev. 3:14 and Prov. 8:22?

The reader's next probable question is: "If Jesus is eternal, then what about Col. 1:15; Rev. 3:14 and Prov. 8:22?" In Col. 1:15, the key word is "firstborn." This Greek word is PROTOTOKOS and not PROTOKTISTOS which means "first created." Had the Holy Spirit through Paul wanted to say "first created," he had a word available in Greek! Instead, "firstborn" was used, which is different from first created. In context, Jesus is shown here to be preeminent over all creation "because by means of him ALL things were created" (Col. 1:16). [NOTICE: the word "other" in brackets as found in the N. W. T. is NOT in the Greek! This uninspired, foreign word should NOT be found in Col. 1:16,17 because: (1) It's NOT in the original language and (2) It changes the meaning of these important verses.] Have "ALL things" ever created been created "by" and "for" Jesus (Col. 1:16)? ____YES ____NO. Compare this verse to Prov. 16:4 which shows all things were created "for" __________.

Read Gen. 41:51,52; 48:17-19 and Jer. 31:9 and learn that Joseph had two sons and EACH was called "firstborn!" ("Firstborn," therefore, must have more than just one meaning!) In context, Col. 1:15 shows Jesus is preeminent over all creation and out of the creation-class. This can be understood since he is ETERNAL. Col. 1:17 shows Jesus "is __________ ALL things and by means of him ALL things were made to exist." (Also see Jn. 1:3.) Since Jesus created ALL things, can he be part of his own creation? ____YES ____NO, that would be unreasonable

In Rev. 3:14, the word "beginning" is ARCHE. (This is the Greek word from which we get our English word "architect.") This word also means "origin." "Origin" means the same as "source." Now, if you would read that verse as "the SOURCE of God's creation" as the New American Bible translates it, Jesus would clearly be shown as the Creator and NOT created! Is this rendering consistent with Col. 1:16? ____YES ____NO.

Prov. 8:22 is wisdom (wit) personified and "not actually a person" as the Watchtower book, Aid to Bible Understanding, 1971 ed. shows on pp. 918 and 1543. Why then does the Watchtower contradict itself by using this verse to apply to Jesus? ____I never knew this until now ____I'm uncertain. Prov. 8:19 when compared to Job 28:15 shows this "wisdom" is NOT a person! Therefore, it can't be referring to Jesus.

Actually, the Bible teaches that Jesus is ETERNAL, and therefore NOT AN ANGEL, since angels are created beings. We already noted Heb. 1:11,12; Jn. 1:3 and Col. 1:16,17, but didn't mention Micah 5:2; Acts 3:15; Jn. 8:58; 1 Jn. 1:2 and Rev. 1:17,18.

Micah 5:2 refers to JESUS the SAME WAY Psa. 93:2 refers to God. Jesus is "from everlasting" (K. J. V.) or "from the days of time indefinite" (Micah 5:2, N. W. T., 1970 ed.). Psa. 93:2 in the N. W. T. reads, "from time indefinite." Each translation reads the same about the beginning of God and Jesus. Since God is eternal, doesn't this make Jesus eternal as well? ____YES ____NO.

Jesus, "from everlasting"

Acts 3:15 shows Jesus as the "author" of life. If Jesus was created, He couldn't "author" life! He would have to be eternal to do this.

Jn. 8:58 shows the ETERNAL title of God ("I am") referring to Jesus! The Watchtower Bible, N. W. T., renders this verse, "Before Abraham came into existence, I have been." Please compare this with the Greek as found in the Kingdom Interlinear. The Greek reads, "I am" and NOT "I have been"! (Isn't this similar to what the N. W. T. has done with Jesus receiving "worship" instead of "obeisance?" ____YES ____NO.) Because of Jesus' declaration, the unbelieving Jews wanted to stone Jesus (Jn. 8:59). They felt he was guilt of blasphemy, Lev. 24:16!

1 Jn. 1:2 shows that Jesus is "everlasting life." Again, he couldn't be "everlasting life" if he was created, could he? ____YES ____NO.

Who has "all authority" in Heaven and on earth -- the Father or the Son? (Matt. 28:18)

In Rev. 1:17,18; 2:8, we learn that Jesus is "the First and the Last." These verses could only apply to Jesus since the Father never died physically. Rev. 22:13 shows "the First and the Last" IS THE SAME AS "the Alpha and Omega." Rev. 1:8 shows "the Alpha and Omega" is "Almighty!" Therefore, "the First and the Last" (Jesus) is "Almighty!" [Logic declares: If A = B and B = C, then A = C.] Furthermore, the Watchtower book, Aid to Bible Understanding, 1971 ed., p. 57 reads, "The title 'the Alpha and the Omega' carries the same thought as 'the first and the last,' and it is appropriately applied to Jehovah God in an unlimited way as being the first of all things, their Beginner, and also the Almighty...." Even more clear is Matt. 28:18, which states that Jesus now has "ALL authority" in heaven and on earth! (Doesn't Jesus, the one with "ALL authority" in heaven and on earth, deserve our WORSHIP? ____YES ____NO. Who could deserve our worship more than the one with "all authority?") Most JWs don't know that the Watchtower Society, referring to Rev. 1:8, stated that since Jesus' resurrection, "He [Jesus] could be called the Almighty" (Studies in the Scriptures, Vol. VII, The Finished Mystery, p. 15)!

The Watchtower's belief that Jesus is Jehovah's first creation and agent "used by Jehovah in creating all other things" ("Aid to Bible Understanding," 1971 ed., p. 391) does NOT hold up in the light of Isa. 44:24 either! There we read, "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens ALONE; that spreadeth abroad the earth BY MYSELF." (God said he created the heavens _____ and the earth _____.)

Jesus, "the Lord and the God" (Jn. 20:28, Greek)

If Jesus is NOT part of creation, he can't be an angel, but instead God by "nature." However, Jesus is NOT the Father, neither is he the Holy Spirit, yet he is worshiped, called "God," referred to as YHWH and shown to be eternal. Furthermore, in Jn. 20:28, the Apostle Thomas called Jesus "the God" (Greek). [This can't be an exclamation of surprise by Thomas, for if it was, then Jesus would have rebuked him for blasphemy!]

Remember, the Apostle Thomas was "in the truth" and he believed Jesus was both his "Lord" and "God" (Jn. 20:28)! (The Greek says, "The Lord of me and the God of me.") Are YOU in the same LIGHT about Jesus as the Apostle Thomas was? ____YES ____NO. Shouldn't the Watchtower teach about Jesus, as the Apostle Thomas believed, if they are really "Jehovah's Organization?" ____YES ____NO. (Remember that Thomas was also a Jew, a strict MONOtheistic believer, that is, he believed in only one God!) When Jesus was praying in John 17, he was praying to the Father, not himself. Again, remember, Jesus is NOT the Father, yet he is (like the Father) God by nature, according to Heb. 1:3.

But didn't Jesus say, "The Father is greater than I?"

By now you are probably wondering how Jn. 14:28 fits into all this. The word "greater" in this verse refers to position or office and not nature. Similarly, the President of the USA is "greater" than you and I by his office, but he is NOT better by nature. Jn 14:28 doesn't show Jesus is inferior BY NATURE to the Father! (Neither does 1 Cor. 11:3 or 1 Cor. 15:28.)

1 Cor. 11:3 doesn't show the Father superior BY NATURE to Jesus any more than it does the "man" to "woman." (A man is not BETTER by NATURE than a woman, in the marriage, though his position is higher!)

In Luke 2:51, we have the same Greek word used as in 1 Cor. 15:28 which is rendered "subject." If this word means "inferior," then Jesus was "inferior" to Joseph and Mary, which is impossible! Again, Jesus isn't shown less than the Father BY NATURE. Remember, Heb. 1:3 shows Jesus is the exact "nature" of the Father! That is what the word "being," as used in the N. W. T., means in the Greek. Col. 2:9 also says, "For in him (Jesus) dwelleth all the fullness of the GODHEAD bodily." The word "Godhead" in the Greek means "the state of being God." So, all the fullness of the state of being God dwells in Jesus! The N. W. T. uses the words "divine quality" in Col. 2:9. NOTICE how the Greek reads "godship" and NOT "divine quality." The dictionary defines "godship" as "deity!" Can you see the similarity between that and the Emphatic Diaglott reading of the same verse? ____YES ____NO. Col. 2:9 in the Emphatic Diaglott reads, __________

How many Jehovah's Witnesses, do you think, would have come to the conclusion that Jesus is Michael the Archangel, without the "help" of Watchtower literature, that is, by reading the Bible alone? ____NONE ____SOME ____ALL.

Did YOU ever notice that the Watchtower can't even come up with one clear verse from the Bible which shows Jesus is Michael the archangel? ____YES ____NO. To support their doctrine, the Watchtower uses non-relating verses such as Rev. 12:7,8, which have NO connection with Jesus at all. There isn't any reason to believe this passage applies to Jesus! In fact, to the great surprise of most JW's, in 1917 the Watchtower Society, while commenting on Rev. 12:7, said Michael was "the Pope" and his angels are "The Bishops" (Studies in the Scriptures, Vol. VII, The Finished Mystery, p. 188.) 1 Thess. 4:16, which is also misused, doesn't show Jesus is an angel any more than it shows him to be the "trump of God!" If Jesus descending "with an archangel's voice" makes him an angel, then using the same reasoning, we would have to say he is a trumpet because of the phrase, "with God's trumpet!" Matt. 25:31 shows the angels will be with Jesus when he returns! So that explains the "archangel's voice."

Jesus once said, "You are searching the Scriptures, because you think that by means of them you will have everlasting life; and these are the very ones that bear witness about me. And yet you do not want to come to me that you may have life" (Jn. 5:39,40).

Friend, to find life you MUST go to Jesus, NOT an organization! Besides, the Watchtower Jesus is only an angel, which one would never go to in prayer for eternal life. [Remember, Stephen prayed TO Jesus (Acts 7:59). See also Jn. 14:14, Greek, which shows Jesus can be prayed TO just like the Father is.

Please note in oppostion to the Scriptures, the popular Watchtower publication, "The Truth That Leads To Eternal Life," 1968 ed., p. 152 states that it is wrong to pray TO Jesus!] In contrast to the Watchtower Jesus, the Jesus of the Bible is "better than the angels" (Heb. 1:4), with "ALL authority" in heaven and on earth (Matt. 28:18). Go to the Biblical Jesus now in prayer for yourself, as the dying thief did, asking him for forgiveness (Lk. 23:42,43), or as Jn. 4:10 states, for "living water." Trust Jesus 100% for your salvation (Acts 20:21; Rom. 9:30-10:4). If you have Jesus, you have eternal life NOW (1 Jn. 5:12,13). He who endures to the end will be saved (Mt. 10:22). Good works canNOT save you (Eph. 2:8,9; Rom. 4:2-6; Tit. 3:5 and 2 Tim. 1:9).

"The one who sows to please his sinful nature, from that nature will reap destruction; the one who sows to please the Spirit, from the Spirit will reap eternal life. Let us not become weary in doing good, for at the proper time we will reap a harvest if we do not give up. Therefore, as we have opportunity, let us do good to all people, especially to those who belong to the family of believers" (Gal. 6:8-10).

Return to Evangelical Outreach
www.evangelicaloutreach.org